Magnetic "Perpetual" Motion
In attempts to invent a "perpetual motion" machine the magnet and its power have played a role of no mean magnitude. Ill-starred "perpetual motion" machine inventors have tried might and main to apply the magnet to this end. Here is one such project described back in 17th century by Englishmen John Wilkins, the Bishop of Chester.
A Powerful magnet A is placed on the top of the pillar leaned against which is two inclined grooves M and N, one above the other. The upper groove M has a small hole C at the top, while the lower groove N is curved.
The inventor claimed that the arrangement would operate as follows. A small iron ball B was to be placed on the upper groove. Attracted by the magnet A, it ought to roll upwards. On reaching the hole, it should roll down, be carried up by inertial along the curve D, and find itself again on the upper groove M, from whence, again attracted by the magnet, it should again roll up and drop through the hole, roll down and on to the upper groove, ad infinitum.
This the inventor conjectured, would produce "perpetual motion".
What do you think ? Will it ?
A Powerful magnet A is placed on the top of the pillar leaned against which is two inclined grooves M and N, one above the other. The upper groove M has a small hole C at the top, while the lower groove N is curved.
The inventor claimed that the arrangement would operate as follows. A small iron ball B was to be placed on the upper groove. Attracted by the magnet A, it ought to roll upwards. On reaching the hole, it should roll down, be carried up by inertial along the curve D, and find itself again on the upper groove M, from whence, again attracted by the magnet, it should again roll up and drop through the hole, roll down and on to the upper groove, ad infinitum.
This the inventor conjectured, would produce "perpetual motion".
What do you think ? Will it ?
Labels: friday special, funphysics, thinktank
posted by Rajesh Lal at
9:44 PM
15 Comments:
Ok i understand how its supposed to work but on (D) i dont exactly see how it would curve around to travel back up (M) by the magentic pull of A. And too even if it did go around after a couple of times it gain so much speed that the magnet (which is powerful enough to pull the ball up that degree of an incline) would force the ball over the hole(C) then it would stick to (A) Because the ball is Iron and (A) is a magnet Hence it would become magnetized
So No I do not think it would work
I think you have too much time on your hands. That's what I think.
As the object gets closer and closer, the magnetic force would increase. Where magnetic force is proportional to 1/((distance)^2)…one over the distance squared…. Therefore, if the magnet at the top is powerful enough to pull it up the incline, then the iron ball would not be able to fall through the hole at the top.
If the magnet is that powerful, the ball would be stuck to the magnet when it gets up there.
~Cybersurf~
lift Ball B, then when B approaches A along Belt M, the mag force will be even greater such that B will "ignore" Hole C. And quickly bypass C, rushing to A.
[ Case II ] Starting point at top Hole C.
A. If Mag A is so weak, not able to overcome the gravity, then Ball B will drop thru Hole C, and continue traveling along Belt N, thru bottom Hole D, and continue onto the street.
B. If Mag A is strong enuff to lift Ball B, then B wont drop. Instead, will be instantly attracted to Mag A. No show.
Think Inventor didn't understand the following:
* Physics.
* The upward component of magnetic force against gravity.
* Gravity is constant.
* Yet, mag force is greater when Ball B is closer to Mag A (inversly proportional to the distance).
* English Bloody Ball. Shark
Salute to CyberSurf:
I forgot to mention Distance "Squared". Sorry. Shark
I think it would work, quick patent that idea.
if you made it with the top part of M (next to the magnet) slanted so that if you were standing at B, you would not see A, and enlarge the hole so that its diameter is somewhere near twice/an inch/2 inches etc... (depending on the size of it now) and that the hole is on the greater slope as seen at the top of my post, it might work.
but it will not work as it is in the puzzle.
~ghostrider655
Of course not.. assuming the magnet was strong enough to attract it from the bottom of the ram, the closer it gets to the magnet, the stronger the attraction. By the time it got to the top, the attraction would be so strong that it would not roll down the lower ramp..
well ya i dont think it would get into hole C but even if it did, if itss that strong of a mag wouldnt it still go up even when it falls onto N?
no it wouldnt work. this is because if the magnet was strong enough to pull the iron ball back up the incline then it would have the strength to stop it rolling down. therefore stiking to the magnet. if the magnet doesnt pull it back up N, then it has not got enough magnetic attraction to pull it back up M.
The magnet can't stay there forever. Besides the ball would eventually break through the magnetic field because it's magnitude would increase by gravity or else the ball would get stuck to the magnet or become stationary.
Or a tropical storm woould knock the apparatus over. Nothing can stay like that forever, I think.
Wouldnt it all relate to how big the marble is to the whole ?? even if the magnet is so strong it cant pull a marble that is 1/15 the size of the hole across the hole
yeah if the magnet is that powerful, i dont think that a cuved N would work well enough so it will just attach to the magnet...someone might have said that but i didnt feel like reading
it would not work because the meatle balls would just stop at each magnet it wouldent keep moving
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